We need to show that the set is independent, and that it spans.
The set is independent if the equation
\begin{equation*}
x(1,1,0)+y(1,0,1)+z(0,1,1)=(0,0,0)
\end{equation*}
has \(x=y=z=0\) as its only solution. This equation is equivalent to the system
\begin{align*}
x+y \amp =0\\
x+z \amp =0\\
y+z \amp =0\text{.}
\end{align*}
We know that the solution to this system is unique if the coefficient matrix
\(A = \bbm 1\amp 1\amp 0\\1\amp 0\amp 1\\0\amp 1\amp 1\ebm\) is invertible. Note that the columns of this matrix are vectors in our set.
We can determine invertibility either by showing that the
RREF of
\(A\) is the identity, or by showing that the determinant of
\(A\) is nonzero. Either way, this is most easily done by the computer:
Our set of vectors is therefore linearly independent. Now, to show that it spans, we need to show that for any vector \((a,b,c)\text{,}\) the equation
\begin{equation*}
x(1,1,0)+y(1,0,1)+z(0,1,1)=(a,b,c)
\end{equation*}
has a solution. But we know that this system has the same coefficient matrix as the one above, and that existence of a solution again follows from invertibility of \(A\text{,}\) which we have already established.
Note that for three vectors in
\(\R^3\text{,}\) once independence has been confirmed, span is automatic. We will soon see that this is not a coincidence.